Human Reproduction is a high-yield CBSE as well as competitive-exam chapter because it links basic reproductive physiology (gametogenesis, fertilization, implantation) with clinically important ideas (contraception, IVF/ART, infertility, and genetic testing). Understanding hormone regulation (FSH, LH, progesterone, estrogen) and the logic behind pregnancy maintenance/exchange is essential for solving reasoning-based MCQs in board exams and for scoring well in JEE/NEET.
15
Minutes
10
Questions
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Marking
Q1. A woman in the mid‑luteal phase is given a progesterone receptor antagonist. Within 48 hours, which of the following best describes the expected short‑term changes in circulating hormones and uterine status?
Serum progesterone remains near luteal values, and stay suppressed, and the secretory endometrium does not begin breakdown.
Serum progesterone remains high, but and do not change, and the endometrium continues to stay secretory.
Serum progesterone concentration remains near luteal values but loss of progesterone action raises ‑driven and , and the secretory endometrium begins to break down causing menstrual bleeding.
Serum progesterone falls rapidly due to luteolysis; however and remain largely unchanged during the first 48 hours and bleeding does not start.
Q2. Two women, A and B, both have regular menstrual cycles of 28 days. Woman A records a sustained basal body temperature (BBT) rise starting on day 14; woman B records a sustained BBT rise starting on day 18. Menstruation begins on day 28 in both. Which is the most likely interpretation and its implication for fertility?
Woman B has a short luteal phase (~10 days), suggesting insufficient luteal progesterone and a reduced chance of successful implantation.
Woman B has a longer luteal phase (>14 days) and therefore a higher probability of conception.
Both women have identical luteal phase adequacy because the date of menstruation (day 28) fixes luteal length at 14 days irrespective of BBT.
Woman A is more likely to have luteal phase deficiency because her BBT rise is earlier.
Q3. In controlled ovarian stimulation for IVF, final oocyte maturation can be triggered by an injection of or by a bolus of a GnRH agonist to induce an endogenous surge. Why does using a GnRH agonist trigger reduce the risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) compared to ?
GnRH agonist triggers a short LH rise that still has enough time to sustain VEGF release from multiple corpora lutea, so OHSS risk is similar to .
Exogenous produces only a brief LH-like effect (short half-life), so it causes less OHSS than GnRH agonist.
GnRH agonist reduces ovarian VEGF production directly, so luteinized follicles become less vascular and OHSS is prevented.
A GnRH agonist induces a short endogenous (and ) surge, whereas exogenous has a much longer half‑life and prolonged luteinrophic action that sustains VEGF release from luteinized follicles, increasing vascular permeability and risk of OHSS.
Q4. Assertion (A): During human pregnancy most circulating estrogens are produced by the placenta but the immediate androgenic precursors originate from the fetal adrenal and liver.
Reason (R): The placenta lacks CYP17 (17α‑hydroxylase/17,20‑lyase) activity needed for de novo androgen synthesis, so it depends on fetal dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA‑S) and its hepatic derivatives which the placenta aromatizes to estrogens.
Which option is correct?
Both A and R are true but R does not correctly explain A.
Both A and R are true and R correctly explains A.
A is true but R is false.
A is false but R is true.
Q5. In preimplantation genetic testing for aneuploidy (PGT‑A), a biopsy is typically taken from trophectoderm () cells of the blastocyst to infer chromosomal status of the inner cell mass (). If an embryo is mosaic with aneuploid cells confined to the while the is euploid, which outcome is most likely if PGT‑A is performed and the embryo is transferred based on a euploid result?
PGT‑A will likely report a euploid embryo (false‑negative for ICM mosaicism), and transfer could result in an aneuploid fetus or developmental problems because the (future embryo) carries the abnormal cells.
PGT‑A will reliably detect the ICM mosaicism because chromosomal status of the always mirrors that of the .
A euploid guarantees a chromosomally normal fetus because and derive from identical, uniformly distributed lineages.
ICM‑restricted mosaicism cannot occur; mosaicism must be present equally in both and .
Q6. A man's ejaculate volume is 3 mL. Semen analysis shows sperm concentration of sperm/mL and progressive motility of 60%. How many progressively motile sperm are present in the ejaculate?
Q7. In an IVF cycle, 20 oocytes were retrieved. Historically of retrieved oocytes are mature, of mature oocytes fertilize, and of fertilized zygotes develop to blastocysts. What is the expected number of blastocysts produced?
Q8. During maternal gametogenesis nondisjunction occurs at meiosis I producing a secondary oocyte with chromosomes. If this oocyte is fertilized by a normal sperm with chromosomes, the resulting zygote will have which chromosomal constitution?
Q9. An individual has a karyotype and undescended testes that secrete normal amounts of anti-Müllerian hormone () and testosterone, but target tissues lack functional androgen receptors (complete androgen insensitivity). Which combination of phenotypic features is most likely?
Phenotypically female external genitalia, well-developed breasts at puberty, scant or absent pubic/axillary hair, absence of uterus and fallopian tubes, presence of undescended testes
Phenotypically female external genitalia with normal pubic hair, presence of uterus and functioning ovaries, testes absent
Ambiguous external genitalia with virilization at puberty, presence of uterus, ovaries absent, undescended testes
Phenotypically male external genitalia with micropenis, presence of uterus, undescended testes
Q10. On first‑trimester ultrasound a twin pregnancy shows a single placenta with two separate amniotic sacs. Assuming monozygotic origin, at which embryonic stage did the embryo most likely split and is the pregnancy at increased risk of twin–twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS)?
Splitting at days – (early cleavage) → dichorionic diamniotic; not predisposed to TTTS
Splitting at days – (after amnion formation) → monochorionic monoamniotic; no increased risk of TTTS
Splitting at days – (blastocyst/early implantation) → monochorionic diamniotic; yes, increased risk of TTTS due to placental vascular anastomoses
Splitting after day → conjoined twins; TTTS risk is not the primary concern