The “Human Health and Disease” chapter is crucial for CBSE and competitive exams because it links concepts like infection–immunity, vaccines, epidemiology (R₀, herd immunity, PPV), and disease control with real-world reasoning. Many MCQs test both factual understanding (immune responses, ADE, modes of transmission) and quantitative thinking (herd immunity thresholds, incidence–prevalence relation, PPV), so strong command of this chapter improves accuracy under both theory and numerical questions.
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15
Questions
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Marking
Q1. A contagious disease has basic reproduction number . A vaccine with efficacy (i.e., successfully immunizes of vaccinated individuals) is introduced. Using the critical vaccination coverage formula , what minimum percentage of the total population must be vaccinated to achieve herd immunity (round to the nearest whole percent)?
80%
100%
67%
62%
Q2. A newly emerged respiratory bacterium colonizes the nasopharynx and causes disease mainly by releasing a soluble toxin. A vaccine consisting only of the purified toxin subunit is given intramuscularly and elicits high serum IgG but little secretory IgA at the mucosal surface. Which is the most likely epidemiological outcome after mass immunization with this vaccine?
It will largely prevent both colonization and person‑to-person transmission by neutralizing toxin at mucosal surfaces.
Systemic IgG will induce strong mucosal IgA via class switching, thereby reducing carriage in vaccinated people.
It will neither reduce disease nor transmission because it does not target colonization factors.
It will neutralize the toxin and reduce clinical disease severity in vaccinated individuals, but vaccinated persons may still carry and transmit the bacterium because mucosal IgA responses are minimal.
Q3. A patient infected with pathogen X has serial serum antibody titers measured: day 0 — IgM , IgG ; day 7 — IgM , IgG ; day 28 — IgM , IgG ; day 35 — IgM , IgG . Which interpretation best explains these kinetics?
Primary infection around day 0 followed by re‑exposure (natural reinfection or booster) between day 7 and 28 producing an anamnestic response: IgM falls while high‑affinity IgG rises dramatically.
Passive immunization with exogenous IgG was given at day 7, explaining the IgG rise.
A chronic persistent infection with ongoing antigen exposure causing IgM to remain elevated while IgG increases gradually (not a sharp IgG jump).
Secondary infection beginning near day 28 would typically cause a renewed rise in IgM; however, IgM keeps declining here, so this is inconsistent.
Q4. Assertion (A): Widespread, unnecessary prescription of broad‑spectrum antibiotics for viral respiratory infections increases the prevalence of antibiotic‑resistant bacteria in the community.
Reason (R): This occurs because antibiotics induce production of new resistance genes in human viruses, which are then transferred to bacteria.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
A is false but R is true.
Q5. A dengue vaccine candidate elicits strong neutralizing antibodies to DENV‑1 but only weak, subneutralizing antibodies to DENV‑2, DENV‑3 and DENV‑4. In a region where all four serotypes co‑circulate, mass vaccination with this candidate is most likely to cause which epidemiological consequence?
Near‑elimination of dengue across all serotypes due to herd immunity.
An increase in the proportion of severe dengue cases among vaccinated individuals upon subsequent infection with non‑1 serotypes due to antibody‑dependent enhancement (ADE).
No change in disease severity but a uniform decrease in transmission of all serotypes.
A shift to lower viraemia in all infected individuals, reducing symptomatic cases only in older age groups.
Q6. A novel viral disease has basic reproduction number . A vaccine of efficacy (i.e. ) is introduced. Using the herd-immunity condition , what minimum fraction of the population must be vaccinated to stop sustained transmission? Assume homogeneous mixing.
80%
60%
100%
50%
Q7. In a population with disease prevalence , a diagnostic test has sensitivity and specificity . Using the positive predictive value formula
,
approximate the PPV for a positive test result.
≈16%
≈67%
≈95%
≈38%
Q8. Two vaccines target the same enteric virus: Vaccine L is live attenuated given orally; Vaccine K is inactivated given intramuscularly. A region using high coverage of Vaccine K reports a marked drop in severe cases but ongoing transmission because many vaccinated people asymptomatically carry and shed virus. Which explanation best accounts for this observation?
Vaccine K elicits weak IgG neutralizing antibodies so only a minority are protected from disease.
Vaccine K induces immune tolerance in gut-associated lymphoid tissue leading to asymptomatic carriage.
Use of Vaccine K selected for viral variants that replicate without causing severe disease but are still shed.
Vaccine K (IM, inactivated) induces systemic IgG that prevents clinical disease but elicits little mucosal IgA, so it does not block mucosal colonization and fecal shedding.
Q9. Two patients with dengue have similar viral loads. Patient A: high anti-dengue IgM and low IgG (no prior dengue). Patient B: low IgM, high anti-dengue IgG and a documented dengue infection one year ago. Which patient is at higher risk of developing severe dengue (DHF/DSS) and why?
Patient A — high IgM predicts stronger complement activation causing severe disease.
Patient B — pre-existing non-neutralizing IgG facilitates viral uptake into Fcγ receptor-bearing cells (antibody-dependent enhancement), increasing severity.
Both are equally likely; severity correlates only with viral load.
Patient A — primary infections typically cause worse disease due to a naive immune response.
Q10. An ICU experiences recurrent outbreaks of MRSA and VRE despite strict antibiotic restriction policies. Which single measure will most rapidly reduce patient-to-patient transmission of these organisms?
Strict enforcement of hand hygiene and contact precautions among healthcare workers
Rotating antibiotic classes used in the ICU monthly to reduce selection pressure
Routine environmental screening cultures to identify contaminated surfaces
Universal prophylactic topical antibiotics for all admitted patients
Q11. Using the herd immunity threshold formula , what minimum percentage of the population must be immunized to prevent sustained transmission for a disease with ?
20%
80%
60%
95%
Q12. In a town of 10,000 people, 200 individuals are living with a chronic infection at steady state. If the average duration of the disease is 10 years, estimate the annual incidence per 1000 population using .
0.2 per 1000 per year
20 per 1000 per year
5 per 1000 per year
2 per 1000 per year
Q13. In an antibody titration assay serum X shows positive reaction up to dilution , while serum Y shows positive up to dilution . Assuming antibody concentration is proportional to the reciprocal of the endpoint dilution, by what factor is the antibody concentration in serum Y higher than in serum X?
8-fold
4-fold
16-fold
2-fold
Q14. A diagnostic assay has sensitivity and specificity . In a population with disease prevalence , the positive predictive value is given by . Which value is closest to the PPV for this setting?
50%
5%
15%
95%
Q15. Consider a bacterial population with initial counts (antibiotic-sensitive) and (resistant). On antibiotic-free days each day sensitive multiplies by 5 and resistant by 4; on antibiotic-treated days sensitive is reduced to -fold per day while resistant multiplies by 6 per day. If antibiotic is administered for 3 consecutive days followed by 4 antibiotic-free days (one-week cycle), which statement is true about the populations after one week? (You may use and .)
Sensitive strain remains at least ten times more abundant than resistant after one week.
Resistant strain becomes more abundant than sensitive (by roughly an order of magnitude).
Both strains decline in absolute numbers after the week.
Resistant strain remains below 1% of the total population despite the antibiotic.